I normally play grammar by ear (I never bothered come formally examine the rules), so i don't recognize why

"Thank you because that inviting mine family and I" and "Thank you because that inviting me and also my family" both sound correct while

"Thank you because that inviting I and my family" and also "Thank you for inviting my family and also me" both sound incorrect.

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The i vs me rule doesn't yes, really help; "Thank you for inviting me" sounds correct "Thank you for inviting I" is clear wrong.

Can anyone help with this?


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"Thank you because that inviting mine family and also me"

Two things are going on here.

1> constantly put yourself behind the other human in a compound. For this reason I, me, etc. Always comes behind the other people - you, them, they, my friends, my family, ... The list is unlimited -- in English, friend don't count for as much as the people you're linking to through a conjunction.

The 2nd problem is yes, really easier. Just think what you would certainly say if over there wasn't other (someone) else associated to it. Would you ever say, "Thank you for inviting I"? If not, then don't usage 'I' just due to the fact that they invite someone else too.


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level 2
· 9y

I've been utilizing 'My friend and also I' because that the longest time, mainly due to the fact that I to be told that if you take the other person out of the sentence it transforms the structure totally since you lose a subject/noun etc. Have the right to someone please clarify this?


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level 1
· 9y
What you really need to know is that "I" is for once you room doing the verb and "me" is for once someone is law the verb come you. Because the inviting is being done to you, it's gotta it is in "me."


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level 1
· 9y

Well. What's continue is the the verb requires something in the objective situation to come after it. ‘My family’ is the same whether it's topic or object, and also if you usage ‘my family and also I’ as the object of a verb, due to the fact that the family bit comes very first it kind of ‘shields’ the ns from sounding also strange. (It is tho wrong, in conventional written English, however it's the type of thing you will hear a many in speech.) vice versa, if ‘I’ comes immediately after the verb it's noticeable straight away the it demands to be in the objective form ‘me’.


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level 2
· 9y

This is what threw me off, thanks!


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level 1
· 9y

If girlfriend pare the sentence under to the essentials, the rules come to be clearer. As you noted, "thank you for inviting me" is correct due to the fact that me is an object, not a subject. Thus, "thank you because that inviting mine family, friends, poodle, pets fish and also me" is likewise correct.


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· 9y · edited 9y

We space talking around the respective indirect case forms the what is "my family and I" and "I and also my family" in the (unstressed) straight case. "My family" doesn't adjust anyway, yet the indirect case type of "I" is "me".

Now the concern is what happens when we placed the 2 together and also we really desire the indirect situation of the conjunction. Languages differ in how they take care of this. English and also the major European languages placed both components in the indirect case prior to joining them. So the correct develops are " mine family and also me" as well as " me and my family". This is all there is to say native an education prescriptive point of view.

Nevertheless, so countless native speaker of English agree v your early stage intuitions, that we cannot case that " mine family and also I" is totally wrong. What is more, far-reaching numbers of civilization have to be talking like this for centuries. Plainly there is some alternate grammatical pattern at work.

I guess there are plenty of ways the phenomenon deserve to potentially be explained. To get much more information, the is finest to change "my family" by something for which the straight object type is not the same to the indirect thing form. A an excellent example is " him/he and me/I" / " me/I and him/he", and with the there room some fascinating phenomena. Check out http://languagelog.ldc.upenn.edu/nll/?p=3469 because that details and also for a conversation of possible explanation.

My explanation 1, i beg your pardon is comparable to several of those stated in the Language log post, claims that your grammatical rule goes around as follows:

Direct object or indirect, emphasize or unstressed, in English it's all the same (immutable) except for an individual pronouns.

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When you join words through "and", the an outcome is never a an individual pronoun, even when several of the constituents are an individual pronouns. Therefore, even facility constructions involving a pronoun space immutable. One of two people "my family and I" is correct regardless of case, or "my family and also me" is correct regardless the case, or both room correct nevertheless of case. I.e., if one deserve to be used for X in "inviting X", then it deserve to be offered in "X invited" and vice versa.

Now we have decoupled the case of "I"/"me" native the context in i m sorry "my family and I/me" occurs, but we must still choose between "I" and also "me". A standard selection in any Indo-European language would be the direct object case, so "I". This is the obvious an option if you have a bit of official grammar education. On the various other hand, English additionally uses the indirect thing case, i.e. "me", together a stressed variant of the straight object case. (E.g. In titles. Usually in the same situations where French supplies "moi" instead of "je".) for this reason that's additionally a perfectly great choice. In general, "me" is more idiomatic yet is rubbish by countless pedants who just deny the English has actually stressed variants the pronouns and prescribe: "Who is that? - I!"

My explanation also tells united state why plenty of native speakers, especially children, to speak things like "Me and also my brother went fishing."

My alternate explanation claims that for part speakers, once a complicated phrase is in the indirect case, just the an initial constituent gets marked as indirect case and the rest stays in direct case. This predicts "invite him and also she" as well as "invite her and also he" as 'correct'. If any type of native speaker yes, really feels the these are correct (I doubt it), you re welcome speak up!

(This alternate explanation is not completely insane. E.g. In German, when you placed a cable of adjective in front of a noun that is in the dative case, then only the very first adjective -- or the post preceding it -- is in the datil case, and also the others space in the please select candidate case. That's similar and even weirder.)